Q.If L is the length, B the width of the brick and t thickness of mortar, the relation between these is

1. L=2B
2. L=B+t
3. L=B+2t
4. L=2B+t

Q.Water absorption for first class bricks should not be more than

1. 12%
2. 15%
3. 20%
4. 25%

Q. Granite after metamorphism transforms to

1. Quartzite
2. Gneiss
3. Schist
4. Slate

Q. Which of the following is not an objective of seasoning of timber

1. reduction in shrinkage and warping
2. reduction of weight
3. increase in strength and durability
4. reduction of natural defects in timber

Q.Which of the following in timber is caused by fungus

1. Upsets
2. Foxiness
3. Dry rot
4. Wet rot

Q.For complete hydration of cement the w/c ratio needed is

1. <0.25
2. > 0.25 but < 0.35
3. > 0.35 but < 0.45
4. > 0.45

Q.If p is the standard consistency of cement, the amount of water used in conducting the initial setting time test on cement is

1. 0.65 p
2. 0.85 p
3. 0.6p
4. 0.78 p

Q.Which of the following aggregates gives maximum strength in concrete

1. rounded aggregate
2. elongated aggregate
3. flaky aggregate
4. cubical aggregate

Q.The maximum bulking of sand is likely to occur at a moisture content of

8. 5%
9. 8%
10. 11%
11. 14%

Q.The upper limit of suspended particles in water for the preparation of concrete is

9. 200 ppm
10. 2000 ppm
11. 5000 ppm
12. 10000 ppm

Q.When combined with cement which of the following constituents of puzzolana combine with free lime released during the hydration of cement

10. SiO₂
11. Al₂O₃
12. Fe₂O₃
13. MgO

Q.The approximate ratio between the strength of cement concrete at 7 days and 28 days is

11. 3/4
12. 2/3
13. 1/2
14. 1/3

Q.To make one cubic meter of 1:2:4 by volume concrete, the volume of coarse aggregate required is

12. 0.94 m³
13. 0.85 m³
14. 0.75 m³
15. 0.65 m³

Q.With the same w/c ratio, the lower the maximum size of aggregates the strength of concrete

13. Increases
14. Decreases
15. remains same
16. none of these

Q.One of the main demerits in using the lime mortar is that it

14. is not durable
15. does not set quickly
16. swells
17. is plastic

Q.In mild steel the iron content is about

15. 50%
16. 80%
17. 90%
18. 99%

Q.The alloy used as plumber solder is

1. Y- alloy
2. Duralumin
3. Lead thin alloy
4. Pewter

Q.The tensile strength of glass may be

1. 10 N/mm²
2. 50 N/mm²
3. 80 N/mm²
4. 100 N/mm²

The quantity of drier in paints is limited to

1. 2%
2. 4%
3. 6%
4. 8%

In plastic paints, thinner used is

1. Oil
2. Spirit
3. Water
4. Naptha

Which of the following is an example of spirit varnish

1. French polish
2. Asphalt varnish
3. Oil varnish
4. Spar varnish

Coal tar pitch is classified on the basis of

1. Viscosity
2. Softening point
3. Specific gravity
4. Ductility

Ring and ball apparatus is used for which of the following test of bitumen?

1. Penetration
2. Viscosity
3. Softening point
4. Ductility

Plaster of Paris contains about

1. 3% water
2. 6% water
3. 8% water
4. 4% water

Self-compacting concrete is characterized by

1. high powder component
2. high water powder ratio
3. cementitious materials up to 30%
4. rough surface of finish

Q.Plan is a graphical representation of the features on large scale as projected on a

1. horizontal plane
2. vertical plane
3. any plane
4. none of these

The survey in which the curvature of the earth is taken into account is called

1. Geodetic survey
2. Plane survey
3. Preliminary survey
4. Hydrographic survey

True bearing of a line is 10° and the magnetic declination is 2° w. Its magnetic bearing is

1. 2°
2. 8°
3. 12°
4. 20°

A fixed point of reference, whose elevation is known is called

1. reduced level
2. benchmark
3. change point
4. station

Staff reading over a station whose elevation is known is called

1. Foresight
2. Backsight
3. intermediate sight
4. all of these

A series of closed contours on a map indicates

1. a close traverse
2. a depression
3. a summit
4. either (b) or (c)

Area enclosed between a curved boundary and a chain line can be found by

1. Simpson's rule
2. Poncelet's curve
3. Francke's rule
4. All of these

A flywheel starting from rest and accelerating uniformly performs 20 revolutions in 4 seconds.The angular velocity of flywheel after 8 seconds would be

1. 30 rad/sec
2. 35 rad/sec
3. 40 rad/sec
4. 55 rad/sec

The efficiency of screw-jack for a given value of angle of friction

1. depends upon the weight lifted only
2. depends upon the efforts applied only
3. depends upon the weight and efforts only
4. independent of weight lifted or effort applied

The unit of mass-moment of inertia is

1. Kg-m³
2. Kg-m²
3. Kg-m
4. Kg-m⁴

The time period of a simple pendulum will be doubled if

1. its length is doubled
2. its length is halved
3. its length is increased four times
4. its length is increased eight times

The percentage elongation of a material from a direct tensile test indicates

1. Ductility
2. Strength
3. yield stress
4. ultimate strength

A principal plane is a plane which carries

1. maximum shear stress
2. no shear stresses
3. minimum shear stress
4. none of these

The maximum shear stress from a Mohr's circle is given by

1. the diameter of the circle
2. the distance of centre from origin
3. the distance of farthest point from origin
4. the radius of the circle

The number of reaction components possible at a hinged end for a general loading is

1. 1
2. 0
3. 2
4. 3

A cantilever beam is one which is supported with

1. one end hinged and other on roller
2. one end fixed and other on roller
3. both ends on rollers
4. one end fixed and other free

The bending moment in a beam will be maximum where

1. the shear force is uniform
2. the shear force is maximum
3. the shear force is zero
4. none of these

A cantilever beam of length L is subjected to a moment M at its free end. The Maximum shear force in the beam will be

1. M
2. M/L
3. 2M/L
4. 0

The tensile reinforcement will be provided in the cantilever beam subjected to uniformly distributed load

1. at bottom
2. at middle
3. at top
4. any where

A beam of rectangular section 100*200 mm is subjected to a moment of 20 kNm. The maximum bending stress is

1. 30 N/mm²
2. 5/6 N/mm²
3. 10000 N/mm²
4. 300 N/mm²

The ratio of maximum shear stress to average shear stress in the case of a rectangular section is

1. 4/3
2. 3/2
3. 1
4. 2

A cantilever is subjected to a concentrated load W at the mid-point of the span. The slope at the free end will be

1. WL²/6EI
2. WL²/2EI
3. WL²/3EI
4. WL²/8EI

The maximum shear stress produced in a shaft is 5 N/mm². The shaft is of 40 mm diameter. The value of twisting moment is

1. 62.8 Nm
2. 8 Nm
3. 6 Nm
4. 125.6 Nm

The power transmitted in kW by a shaft rotating at a speed of n rpm transmitting a mean torque of T (in kg m) is given by

1. πnT / 3060
2. 2πnT / 4500
3. πnT
4. 3060 πnT

In Brinell Hardness test, the type of indenter used is

1. hard steel cone
2. hard steel ball
3. mild steel ball
4. diamond cone

Toughness is

1. ability to absorb energy during plastic deformation
2. higher ultimate strength
3. stress at yield
4. strain energy at yield

The field capacity of an irrigation soil depends on

1. both porosity and pore size
2. only on porosity
3. only on pore size
4. porosity and depth of root zone

The duty at the field of a crop is 100 hectares/cumecs. If the canal losses are 25%, what is the duty at the head of the canal?

1. 750
2. 1250
3. 250
4. 800

The average delta of rice crop is nearer to

1. 40 cm
2. 80 cm
3. 120 cm
4. 160 cm

Water for domestic use should have

1. Sweet smell
2. Faint smell
3. inoffensive smell
4. no smell

For ordinary domestic sewage BOD reaction is expected to get completed in about (at 20⁰ C)

1. 5 days
2. 10 days
3. 20 days
4. 30 days

For any waste

1. COD may be less than BOD
2. BOD and COD are equal
3. COD is always greater than BOD
4. depending upon the percentage of biodegradable matter, it may be either way

Hardness is desirable for

1. Laundering
2. Boiler feed water
3. wash water of sinks and porcelain tube
4. cardiovascular diseases

The ratio of volume of voids to the total volume of a given soil is

1. void ratio
2. porosity
3. air content
4. air ratio

The ratio of weight of water to the weight of solids is called

1. degree of saturation
2. water content
3. void ratio
4. porosity

Density index for a natural soil is used to express

1. percentage voids
2. relative compactness
3. shear strength of clays
4. specific gravity

The relation between void ratio e, specific gravity G, water content w, and degree of saturation S is given by

1. e=wG/S
2. e= SG/w
3. e = wS/G
4. e = wGS

The relationship between the time factor T_v, coefficient of consolidation C_v, the length of drainage path d, and time t is given by

1. T_v = C_v.d²/t
2. T_v = C_v.t²/d
3. T_v = C_v.t/d²
4. T_v = C_v.t²/d²

The minimum coefficient of lateral friction for a highway is

1. 1
2. 0.5
3. 0.4
4. 0.15

For earthen roads the most common camber is

1. 1 in 20
2. 1 in 24
3. 1 in 36
4. 1 in 48

Minimum super elevation on a curve is equal to

1. 0
2. 7%
3. Camber
4. gradient

An example of a rigid pavement is

1. earthen road
2. water bound macadam road
3. bitumen road
4. concrete road

The minimum numbers of longitudinal steel bars in RCC rectangular columns must be

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8

The effective throat size of a fillet weld is

1. 0.707 times the size of the weld
2. equal to the size of the weld
3. function of the angle between tension sides
4. hypotenuse of the triangle

The most economical section for a column is

1. I section
2. Tubular section
3. solid round section
4. rectangular section

CPM is

1. Activity oriented
2. Event oriented
3. Time oriented
4. Resource oriented

Which of the following is the most correct estimate

1. plinth area estimate
2. cube rate estimate
3. detailed estimate
4. building cost index estimate

The approximate cost of the complete labour as a percentage of the total cost of the building is

1. 10%
2. 25%
3. 40%
4. 5%

The quantity of wood for the shutters of doors and windows is calculate

1. m²
2. m³
3. lump-sum
4. m

The life of teakwood doors and windows is usually taken to be

1. 80 year
2. 60 year
3. 40 year
4. 20 year

Potassium per magnate is used for

1. reducing hardness
2. reducing acidity
3. improving colour
4. de-chlorination

The ratio of shear modulus to the modulus of elasticity when poisons ratio is 0.25, will be

1. 3
2. 2
3. 4
4. 4

The section modules of a circular section about an axis through its C.G is

1. πd³/16
2. πd³/32
3. πd³/64
4. πd³/192

A beam of uniform bending strength will have at every cross section

1. same deflection
2. same stiffness
3. same bending moment
4. same bending stress

The maximum bending moment due to a moving load on a fixed ended beam occurs

1. at a support
2. under the load only
3. at mid span
4. anywhere along the span

Q. The timber preservative “creosote” belongs to the group of

1. Water soluble salts
2. Organic solvent type
3. Tar oil type
4. Inorganic solvent type

Q.The strength of timber is maximum in a direction

1. Parallel to the grains

2. Perpendicular to the grains

3. 45⁰ to the grains

4. 30⁰ to the grains

Q. When a 1^st class brick is immersed in cold water for 24 hours, it should absorb water by weight more than

1. 15%
2. 20%
3. 25%
4. 30%

Q.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists:

List - I (Species)

A.Babul

B.Ben teak

C.Bijsal

D.Mulbury

List-Il (Uses)

1. Tennis rackets (sports goods)
2. Boats
3. Agricultural tools
4. Furniture

Q. The temperature at which the bricks are burnt in kiln varies from

1. 500° to 8000° C
2. 800° to 10000° C
3. 1000° to 1200° C
4. 1200° to 1500° C

Q.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Job Requirement)

A.High early strength

B.Lining for canals

C.Frost and acid resistance

D. Marine Structure

List-II (Type of Cement Binder)

1. Pozzolanic cement
2. Rapid hardening
3. Sulphate resisting
4. High Alumina

Q. As per specifications, the initial setting time of ordinary Portland cement should not be less than

1. 10 minutes
2. 20 minutes
3. 30 minutes
4. 60 minutes

Q. In cements, generally the increase in strength during a period of 14 days to 28 days is primarily due to

1. C₃A
2. C₂S
3. C₃S
4. C₄AF

Q. What is the approximate ratio of the strength of cement concrete at 7 days to that at 28 days’ curing ?

1. 0.40
2. 0.65
3. 0.90
4. 1.15

Q. Which one of the following properties of cement concrete is ascertained by conducting compaction factor test ?

1. Bulk density
2. Compressive strength
3. Modulus of rupture
4. Workability

Q. As per IS 456—2000, which one of the following correctly expresses the modulus of elasticity of concrete ? (read with the relevant units)

Q. The mix design for pavement concrete is based on

1. The flexural strength
2. The characteristic compressive strength
3. The shear strength
4. The bond strength

If G is the modulus of rigidity, E the modulus of elasticity and μ is the Poisson’s ratio for a material, then what is the expression for G?

A thin cylinder of thickness ‘t’, width ‘b’and internal radius ‘r’ is subjected to a pressure ‘p’ on the entire internal surface.What is the change in radius of the cylinder ? (μ is the Poission’s ratio and E is the modulus of elasticity)

Q. A bar of 40 mm diameter and 400 mm length is subjected to an axial load of l00 kN. It elongates by 0.150 mm and the diameter decreases by 0.005 mm. What is the Poission’s ratio of the material of the bar ?

1. 0.25
2. 0.28
3. 0.33
4. 0.37

Q. If the maximum principal stress for an element under bi—axial stress situation is 100 MPa (tensile) and the maximum shear stress is also 100 MPa, then what is the other principal stress?

1. 200 MPa (tensile)
2. 200 MPa (compressive)
3. 100 MPa (compressive)
4. 0

Q. A thin cylindrical tube closed at ends is subjected to internal pressure. A torque is also applied to the tube. The torque is also applied to the tube. The principal stresses p₁ and p₂ developed are 80.0 units and 20.0 units respectively. If the yield stress is 240 units, then what is the factor of safety according to Maximum shear stress theory?

1. 3.00
2. 4.00
3. 5.00
4. 6.00

Q. If p1 and p2 are the principal stresses at a point in a strained material with Young’s modulus E and Poisson’s ratio 1/m, then what is the principal strain ?

Q. In a two-dimensional stress system, the two principal stresses are p1= 180 N/mm²(Tensile), and p2 which is compressive. For the material, yield stress in simple tension and compression is 240 N/mm² and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. According to maximum normal strain theory, for what values of p2, shall yielding commence?

1. 240 N/mm²
2. 180 N/mm²
3. 195 N/mm²
4. 200 N/mm²

Q.The failure surface of a standard cast iron torsion specimen, subjected to a torque is along

1. the surface helicoidal at 45⁰ to the axis of the specimen
2. the curved surface at the grips
3. the plane surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen
4. the curved surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen

Q. Consider the following statements

i) Even though a three—hinged parabolic arch is subjected only to vertical loads, it generates horizontal reactions and axial forces.

ii) A cable uniformly loaded along the horizontal span assumes the shape of a parabola, whereas a cable uniformly loaded along its length takes the shape of a catenary.

iii) Cables loaded uniformly along the horizontal span are by far the types most commonly used structures in practice.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. Only i
2. Only ii and iii
3. Only i and ii
4. i, ii and iii

Q.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List-I (Loading Condition)

A.Cantilever with concentrated load W at end

B.Cantilever with udl (w/unit length) across the complete span (W = wl)

C.Simply supported beam with concentrated load W at the centre

D.Simply supported beam with udl (w/unit length) across complete span (W=wl)

List-II Maximum Slope)

1. Wl²/16EI
2. Wl²/24EI
3. Wl²/2EI
4. Wl²/6EI

Q. Consider the following statements :

Williot-Mohr diagram is used to determine the deflection in

i) an arch

ii) a truss

iii) a rigid frame

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Only iii
4. i, ii and iii

Q. A propped cantilever AB, with fixed edge A is propped at B and carries uniformly distributed load over the entire span. If the prop heaves up (displaces upward), which one among the following is true if prop reaction = R_B, Moment at A = M_A?

1. Both R_B and M_A will increase
2. R_B will increase, M_A will decrease
3. R_B will decrease, M_A will increase
4. Both R_B and M_A will decrease

Q. For the frame as shown in the figure above, the final end moment M_DC has been calculated as — 40 kNm. What is the end moment M_CD?

1. +40 kNm
2. —40 kNm
3. +30 kNm
4. —30 kNm

Q. Consider the following statements

Hardy Cross method of moment distribution can be applied to analyse

i) Continuous beams including non— prismatic structures.

ii) continuous beams with prismatic elements.

iii) structures with intermediate hinges.

iv) rigid frames.

Which of the statements given above are correct ?

1. i, ii, iii and iv
2. Only i, ii and iii
3. Only i, ii and iv
4. Only iii and iv

Q. Consider the following statements regarding the analysis of indeterminate structures

i) The force method consists in applying displacement compatibility conditions at the nodes.

ii) The stiffness method consists in formulating equilibrium equations at the nodes.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

1. Only i
2. Only ii
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q. What is the total strain energy of a member subject to an axial stress f (E = Young’s modulus)

1. (f²/2E)xvolume of bar
2. (f/E)xvolume of bar
3. (f²/E)xvolume of bar
4. (f/2E)xvolume of bar

Q. A beam of square cross—section of side x is composed of material whose yield stress in compression is 1.5 times the yield stress in the tension. What is the distance of the neutral axis from the centre for the fully plastic condition?

1. 0.1 x
2. 0.15 x
3. 0.2 x
4. 0.25 x

Q. Which one of the following is not correct?

1. The shape factor for any section is equal to M_p/M_y
2. For a thin—web wide—flange beam, shape factor is close to unity
3. For a circular section, shape factor is nearly 1.7
4. Shape factor for an I—section sometimes may be more than that for a rectangular section

Q. What is the ratio of the shape factors for beam cross—sections having rectangular, circular and triangular shapes and of same area?

1. 1.00 : 0.73 : 0.64
2. 1.00 : 0.88 : 1.38
3. 1.00 : 1.13 : 1.56
4. 1.00 : 1.56 : 1.13

Q. An equal angle of area A has been attached to the support by means of a lug angle. If allowable stress in tension is f, what is the load carrying capacity of the member?

1. 0.5 fA
2. 0.85 fA
3. 0.9 fA
4. 1.0 fA

Q. What is the maximum slenderness ratio permitted as per IS 800-1984 of design of a tie member subjected to reversal of stress due to earthquake?

1. 180
2. 250
3. 300
4. 350

Q. A welded plate girder has web plate 1500 mm x 6 mm. which one of the following is correct about stiffening the web?

1. The web is left unstiffened
2. The web is provided with vertical stiffeners only
3. The web is provided with vertical stiffeners and a horizontal stiffener at 0.4d from the top flange
4. The web is provided with vertical stiffener and two rows of horizontal stiffeners, one at 0.4 d from the top flange and another at the mid height of the web.

Q. Which one of the following sections is the most efficient for a simply supported gantry girder ?

1. I-section with equal flanges
2. I-section with a channel attached to the top flange
3. I-section with a wide bottom flange
4. I-section with a heavy plate connected to the bottom flange

Q. Conventional practice is to brace end panels of the side walls of an industrial building. Instead bracing can be provided in the bays near centre of the building. Which one of the following reasons is correct?

1. Wind pressure at the mid length is higher compared to ends
2. Trusses are erected starting from the ends of the building
3. Fixing the bracings to end gables is convenient
4. Free change of length between centre and the ends of the building is possible in mid-span bracing.

Q. What is the maximum permissible slenderness ratio of a major compression number which undergoes reversal of stress due to wind load?

1. 180
2. 250
3. 300
4. 400

Q. Which one among the following is the correct ratio of effective length to actual length of a discontinuous angle strut, if ends are welded?

1. 0.65
2. 0.85
3. 1.0
4. 1.2

Q. A fixed beam of length l has been loaded with central concentrated load. The beam has been strengthened at the supports with cover plates so that the flexural resisting yield moment capacity at the ends is thrice of that at the centre. If this capacity is to be fully effective resulting in higher collapse load, to what length from the ends should the cover plate extend?

1. l /3
2. l /4
3. l /6
4. l /8

Q. Which one of the following is the correct maximum shear capacity of a prismatic beam under plastic design of steel structures ?

1. 0.5A_wF_y
2. 0.55A_wF_y
3. 0.75A_wF_y
4. A_wF_y

(Where  A_w and, F_y are web area and yield stress, respectively)

Q. Characteristic strength of M20 concrete is 20 MPa. What is the number of cubes having 28 days compressive strength greater than 20 MPa out of 100 cubes made with the concrete?

1. All
2. 95
3. 80
4. 50

Q. The distance between theoretical cut—off point and actual cut—out point in respect of the curtailment of reinforcement of reinforced concrete beams should not be less than

1. Development length
2. 12 x dia of bar or effective depth whichever is greater
3. 24 x dia of bar or effective depth whichever is greater
4. 30 x dia of bar or effective depth whichever is greater

Q. The final end deflection due to all including effects of temperature, creep and shrinkage measured from as—cast level of the supports of floors, roofs and all other horizontal members of reinforced concrete should not normally exceed

1. Span/350
2. Span/250
3. (Span/350) or 20 mm whichever is less
4. (5/348) of span

Q. Shear strength of concrete in a reinforced concrete beam is a function of which of the following:

i) Compressive strength of concrete

ii) Percentage of shear reinforcement

iii) Percentage of longitudinal reinforcement in tension in the section

iv) Percentage total longitudinal reinforcement in the section

Select the correct answer using the code given below

1. i, ii and iv
2. i, ii and iii
3. Only i and iii
4. Only i and iv

Q. An axially loaded column is of 300 x 300 mm size. Effective length of column is 3 m. What is the minimum eccentricity of the axial load for the column?

1. 0
2. 10mm
3. 16 mm
4. 20 mm

Q.In the case of isolate square concrete footing, match the locations at which the stress resultants are to be checked where d is effective depth of footing and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists

Stress Resultant

A.Bending moment

B.One way shear

D.Punching shear

Location

1. At face of columns
2. At d/2 from face of column
3. At d from face of column

Q. A beam is designed for uniformly distributed loads causing compression in the supporting columns. Where is the critical section for shear? (d is effective depth of beam and L_d is development length)

1. A distance L_d/3 from the face of the support
2. A distance d from the face of the support
3. At the centre of the support
4. At the mid span of the beam

Q. As per codal provisions in two way slabs, the minimum mild steel reinforcement to be provided in the edge strip is

1. On the basis of minimum bending moment
2. Half of the area of steel provided in middle strip in the shorter span
3. Half of the area of steel provided in middle strip in the longer span
4. 15 % of the cross–sectional area of concrete.

Q. A T—beam roof section has the following particular :

Thickness of slab = 100mm

Width of rib = 300mm

Depth of beam = 500mm

Centre to centre distance of beams = 3.0 m

Effective span of beams = 6.0

Distance between points of contra-flexure = 3.6 m

What is the effective flange width of the T–beam ?

1. 3000 mm
2. 1900 mm
3. 1600 mm
4. 1500 mm

Q. A T—beam behaves as a rectangular beam of width equal to its flange if its neutral axis

1. coincides with centroid of reinforcement
2. coincides with centroid of T—section
3. remains within the flange
4. remains in the web

Q. The profile of the centroid of the tendon is parabolic with a central dip h. Effective prestressing force is P and the span l. What is the equivalent upward acting uniform load?

1. 8hl/P
2. 8hP/l²
3. 8h²l/P
4. 8h²P/l

Q. What is the uplift at centre on release of wires from anchors due to pretensioning only for force P and eccentricity e for a pre—tensioned rectangular plank?

1. PeL²/6EI
2. Pe²L/6EI
3. PeL²/8EI
4. Pe²/8EI

Q. An ordinary mild steel bar has been prestressed to a working stress of 200 MPa. Young’s modulus of steel is 200 GPa. Permanent negative strain due to shrinkage and creep is 0.0008. How much is the effective stress left in steel ?

1. 184 MPa
2. 160 MPa
3. 40 MPa
4. 16 MPa

Q. Which one of the following is the correct statement?

Prestressing anchorage units using multiple wire cables exist in the

1. Freyssinet system
2. Lee—McCall system
3. Gifford—Udall system
4. Hoyer system

Q. Match List — I with List — II and select the correct answer using the code given below the Lists :

List - I (Post Tensioning System)

A.Freyssinet

B.Gifford—Udall

C.Lee—McCall

D.Magnel—Blaton

List-II (Arrangement of Tendons in the Duct)

1. Single bars
2. Wires evenly spaced by perforated spacers
3. Horizontal rows of four wires spaced by metal grills
4. Wires spaced by helical wire core in annular spacer

Q. A pre–stressed concrete beam of cross–sectional area A, moment of inertia ‘I’,distance of top extreme fibre from neutral axis ‘y_t’, and distance of bottom extreme fibre from neutral axis ‘y_b’; is subjected to pre—stressing force such that stress at top fibre is zero. What is the value of eccentricity (r is radius of gyration):

1. A/y_b
2. r²/y_b
3. r²/y_t
4. ry_b/y_t

Q. Concordant cable profile is

1. A cable profile that produces no support reactions due to pre-stressing
2. A cable profile which is parabolic in nature
3. A cable profile which produces no bending moment at the supports of a beam
4. A cable profile laid corresponding to axial stress diagram

Q. For a pre—stressed concrete continuous beam subject to different load combinations, which one of the following is correct for concordant cable profile?

1. It is not unique, but located in a narrow zone
2. It is unique
3. It is selected as compromise between secondary stresses and working stresses
4. It is selected based on deflection profile

Q. A masonry wall has height ‘h’, length ‘L’ and thickness ‘t’. The allowable stress based on slenderness is calculated on the basis of

1. h/t only
2. L/t only
3. Lesser of L/t and h/t
4. Greater of L/t and h/t

Q. The net effect of vertical and lateral forces acting on a masonry wall can be expressed as vertical load ‘p’/unit length acting at an effective eccentricity ‘e’. If e > (t/6),tension develops in the wall. Ignoring in the part of thickness ‘t’ in tension, what is the compressive stress in extreme fibre?

1. p/{(t/2)–e}
2. [2p/3 {(t/2)–e}]
3. [p/3 {(t/2)–e}]
4. [p/6 {(t/2)–e}]

Q. Which one of the following is not a factor affecting strength of a brick masonry wall?

1. Size and location of door in a wall
2. Positioning of cross walls
3. Type of roof the wall bears and its connection
4. Type of plastering on the wall

Q. Consider the following statements :

A mixer designated 400 NT indicates that

i) it is non-tilting type mixer

ii) its nominal mix batch capacity is 400litres

iii) it requires 400 revolutions for propermixing of the batch using one bag ofcement

which of the statements given above arecorrect ?

1. only i and iii
2. only i and ii
3. only ii and iii
4. i, ii and iii

Q. Transportation of concrete-mix by pumps is very convenient method, particularly in case of

1. Housing complex
2. Cement concrete pavement
3. Low rise buildings
4. Tunnel–lining

Q. What is the correct sequence of operations involved in concrete production?

1. Batching–Mixing–Handling–Transportation
2. Mixing–Batching–Handling–Transportation
3. Transportation–Handling–Mixing–Batching
4. Handling–Transportation–Mixing–Batching

Q.Match List–I with List–II and select thecorrect answer using the code given belowthe Lists :

List-I(Type of work)

A.To dig trenches, footings or basementwhere the precise control of depth is required

B.To handle loose materials such as sand,gravel, coal, etc.

C.To excavate all classes of earth exceptthe rock & load it into the trucks

D. To excavate the earth from a canal and to be deposited on nearby banks

List–II(Type of Machine)

1. Clam shells
2. Power shovel
3. Back hoe
4. Scraper
5. Drag line

Q. Which of the following are the advantages of crawler mounted bulldozer over wheel mounted bulldozers ?

i) Higher travel speed

ii) Able to travel over very soft soil

iii) Able to travel over very rough surfaces having no haul roads

Select the correct answer using the codes given below :

1. i, ii and iii
2. Only i and ii
3. Only i and iii
4. Only ii and iii

Q. Consider the following statements associated with critical path :

i) Critical path is the most important sequence of activities which has no float and which determines the project completion period

ii) Critical path is the largest path with shortest duration withing which the project can be completed

iii) The difference between early start time and late finish time must be equal to the activity duration

Which of the statements given above arc correct?

1. i, ii and iii
2. Only i and ii
3. Only i and iii
4. Only ii and iii

Q.Consider the following activities of a housing project

1. Flooring
2. Wall—plastering
3. Conceal wiring
4. Fixing doors—window frames
5. Fixing door—window shutters

What is the correct logical sequence of the above activities?

1. 4—3—2—5—1
2. 3—1—5–4—2
3. 1—4—5—2—3
4. 1—2—3—4—5

Q. What is the process of incorporating changes and rescheduling or preplanning called?

1. Resource allocation
2. Resource smoothing
3. Resource levelling
4. Updating

Q. A cantilever is to be attached to column. Which one among the following is the best connection?

1. Framed connection
2. Seated’ connection
3. Stiffened seated connection
4. End plate connection

Q. Assertion (A) : The strength of brick masonry is purely dependent upon the type of mortar used.

Reason (R) : Mortar is the binding material in masonry.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : Low heat Portland cement is used in dam construction.

Reason (R) : Low heat Portland cement attains higher 28 days’ strength than ordinary Portland cements.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : Rebound hammer (Schmidt hammer) test gives only approximate estimation of strength of the concrete specimen.

Reason (R) : The test represents the hardness of the surface and provides no idea of the concrete inside.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : In working stress method of design, the values of strain in cement concrete and steel at any point are same.

Reason (R) : There is a perfect bond between steel and surrounding cement concrete.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : For a ductile material the maximum shear distortion theory is most suitable.

Reason (R) : The maximum shear distortion theory of failure assumes that yielding can occur in a general three—dimensional state of stress.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : In limit state design, overreinforced sections are not permitted.

Reason (R) : As the Concrete failure is brittle, the structure fails suddenly without any warning.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : The working stress method of R.C.C. design of beams is also known as modular ratio method.

Reason (R) : The ratio of stress in steel and concrete is the same as that of elastic modulii of steel and concrete in beam.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : For low discharges at high heads, reciprocating pumps are not suitable.

Reason (R) : In a reciprocating pump, the liquid is pushed out of the cylinder by actual displacement of a piston or a plunger.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : Deflection of a beam with bolted connections is greater than that of a beam with riveted connections.

Reason (R) : Bolted connections allow greater slip between components than riveted connections.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : Angle of inclination of lacing bars in a built- up column is constrained as 70° > Ɵ > 40°, where Ɵ is angle of lacing with vertical.

Reason (R) : When this limit is not maintained, the total length of the bar will be large.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A) : Smooth wheeled rollers are preferred for compacting granular soils but not cohesive soils.

Reason (R) : Cohesive soils tend to form a crust over the rolling smooth surface.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are’ individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q.What is the total degree of indeterminacy (both internal and external) of the triangular planar truss shown in the figure above?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 5
4. 6

Q. What is the total degree of indeterminacy in the continuous prismatic beam shown in the above figure?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Q. What is the total degree of indeterminacy (both internal and external) of the cantilever plane truss shown in the above figure?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 5

Q. What is the number of independent degrees of freedom of the two-span continuous beam of uniform section shown in the above figure?

1. 1
2. 2
3. 3
4. 4

Q. What is the kinematic indeterminacy for the frame shown above? (Member inextensible)

1. 6
2. 11
3. 12
4. 21

Q. If the axial deformation is neglected, what is the kinematic indeterminacy of a signal bay portal frame fixed at base?

1. 2
2. 3
3. 4
4. 6

Q. For the rigid frame shown above, what is the moment reaction at A?

1. 5 kNm
2. 10 kNm
3. 12.33 kNm
4. 15 kNm

Q. If the free end of a cantilever of span l and flexure rigidity EI undergoes a unit displacement (without rotation), what is the bending moment induced at the fixed end?

Q.A fixed beam AB, of constant EI, shown in the above figure, supports a concentrated load of 10 kN. What is the fixed end-moment M_FAB at support A?

1. 4.8 kNm
2. 6.0 kNm
3. 7.2 kNm
4. 9.5 kNm

Q. Muller-Breslau Principle is applicable to get influence line for which one of the following?

1. Reaction at the ends of simple beam
2. Bending moment at a section
3. Shear force at a section
4. Forces and moments at any section

Q. What is the number of plastic hinges formed if an indeterminate beam with redundancy R is to become determinate?

1. R -1
2. R
3. R + 1
4. R + 2

Q. A portal frame has a collapse mechanism as shown above. What is the type?

1. Pure portal mechanism
2. Panel mechanism
3. Combined mechanism
4. Dual beam mechanism

Q. A steel beam is connected to a steel column by means of two angles placed on the two sides of the web of the beam. What is it called?

1. Stiffened seat connection
2. Unstiffened seat connection
3. Framed connection
4. Rigid connection

Q.What is the failure of a section in the figure above called?

i) Web buckling

ii) Web crippling

iii) Web crimpling

iv) Column bucking

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Q. In the plastic analysis of a steel beam, which of the following assumptions is/are made?

1. i) Plane sections under bending remain Plane at all stages of bending.

   ii) The stress-strain, relation is bilinear, i.e. consisting of two straight lines.

   iii) Shear deformations are neglected.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. i only
2. ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i, ii and iii

Q. A load P is applied at the middle of a simply supported beam of span L. If the beam is made of ductile material, and M_P is the plastic moment, what is the ultimate value of P?

Q. What value of the shape factor is taken for a rectangular section in plastic design?

a. 1.0

b. 1.5

c. 2.0

d. 2.5

Q. Plastic analysis of structures is applicable to the structures made of which one of the following?

1. Ductile and brittle materials
2. Any structural material
3. Brittle material only
4. Ductile material only

Q.The effective length of an angle member in a riveted truss is equal to which one of the following?

(Where l is the centre to centre distance between the joints).

1. l
2. 0.85 l
3. 0.65 l
4. 0.5 l

Q. Which one of the following is correct:

The purling in the roof trusses are subjected to unsymmetrical bending because the loading

1. is parallel to the minor principle axis, but doesn’t coincide
2. is perpendicular to the minor principle axis
3. is inclined to the minor principal axis
4. coincides with the minor principal axis

Q.Which one of the following forces is used for the design of battens of a built-up column?

1. Axial load
2. Twisting moment
3. Vertical shear
4. Transverse shear

Q.Which of the following parameters govern the permissible stress in compression in columns?

1. i) Modulus of section

   ii) Effective length

   iii) Radius of gyration

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. i, ii and iii
2. i and iiionly
3. ii and iii only
4. i and iii only

Q. What is the maximum permissible slenderness ratio for steel ties likely to be subjected to compression?

1. 400
2. 350
3. 250
4. 180

Q. For field rivets, the permissible stresses are reduced by what percentage?

1. 1. 10 %
   2. 15 %
   3. 25 %
   4. 33⅓%

Q. An equal angle of area A has been welded on one side of a Gusset plate and carries tension along the axis. What is the effective area of the angle?

1. 0.5 A
2. 0.75 A
3. 0.875 A
4. A

Q. Which one of the following is correct?

The permissible stresses in a weld are usually taken as

1. Less than those of the parent body
2. Equal to those of the parent body
3. More than those of the parent body
4. Any desired value

Q.How are structural members composed of two angles back to back connected throughout their length?

1. By locking rivets
2. By spacing rivets
3. By gripping rivets
4. By tacking rivets

Q. Which one of the following is correct?

Steel structures are ideally suitable for impact loads because they have high

1. Toughness value
2. Elastic modulus
3. Design stress
4. Plastic modulus

Q. Consider the following statements:

Compared to mild steel, aluminum has

i) Lesser ductility

ii) Lesser value of Young’s modulus.

iii) Lesser tensile strength.

iv) No definite yield point.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. ii and iii only
2. i. ii and iii
3. i, ii, iii and iv
4. i and iv only

Q. Which one of the following is the correct range of fineness modulus of medium sand usable in preparing cement mortar?

1. 1.5 to 2.2
2. 2.6 to 2.9
3. 2.9 to 3.2
4. 5.5 to 6.5

Q. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?

1. i) Particle size: Affects workability

   ii) Absorption and surface moisture: affects mix proportions

   iii)Grading: Maximizes cement

   iv) Bulk density: Significant for stability

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. i and ii
2. ii and iii
3. iii and iv
4. i and iii

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. i) Rise in temperature does not cause any change in the color of cement concrete.

   ii) Curing minimizes the shrinkage of cement concrete when it sets.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. i only
2. ii only
3. Both i and ii
4. Neither i nor ii

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. 1. In reinforced cement concrete, modular ratio is defined by ratio (modulus of elasticity of steel) / (modulus of elasticity of concrete).
   2. Modulus of rupture of cement concrete is a function of its characteristic compressive strength.
   3. The characteristic compressive strength of M20 grade cement concrete at 7 days is 20 N/mm².

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. A, B and C
2. A and B only
3. B and C only
4. A and C only

Q. What is the percentage of the fine aggregate of fineness modulus 2.6 to be combined with coarse aggregate of fineness modulus 5.4 for obtaining combined aggregate of fineness modulus 4?

1. 30 %
2. 40 %
3. 50 %
4. 60 %

Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Admixture)

A.Calcium lignosulphonate

B.Aluminum powders

C.Tartaric acid

D.Sodium silicate

List-II  (Action in concrete)

1. Accelerators
2. Retarders
3. Air entertainer
4. Water reducer

Code:

       A          B           C         D

1. 1 3            2         4
2. 4  3            2         1
3. 4  2            3         1
4. 1 2            3         4

Q. Which factors influence the workability of concrete without sacrificing strength?

1. i) Fine aggregate

   ii) Quality of mixing water

   iii) Maximum size of coarse aggregate

   iv) Shape of coarse aggregate.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. i only
2. ii only
3. i and ii
4. iii and iv

Q. The workability of concrete can be increased by which of the following?

1. i) Increasing the quantity of coarse aggregate without altering the total aggregate quantity

   ii) Decreasing the quantity of coarse aggregate and at the same time correspondingly increasing the quantity of fine aggregate

   iii) Using round aggregate

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. i and iii only
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i, ii and iii

Q. Consider the following statements regarding cement concrete:

1. i) Bleeding indicates deficiency of coarser materials in the mix.

   ii) Segregation generally indicates poor aggregate grading.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. i only
2. ii only
3. Both i and ii
4. Neither i nor ii3

Q. Consider the following statements:

Curing of concrete by steam under pressure

i) Increases the compressive strength of concrete.

ii) Reduces the shear strength of concrete.

iii) Increases the speed of chemical reaction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. i, ii and iii
2. i only
3. ii and iii only
4. iii only

Q.Match the sequence of determination of components of a concrete mix as per Indian standard method of mix design and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

Code:

     A B C D

1. 1 2 4 3
2. 3 2 4 1
3. 3 4 2 1
4. 1 4 2 3

Q. In a body loaded under plane stress conditions, what is the number of independent stress components in order to completely specify the state of stress at a point?

1. 3
2. 4
3. 6
4. 9

Q. The value of modulus of elasticity for a material is 200 GN/m² and Poisson’s ratio is 0.25. What is its modulus of rigidity?

1. 250 GN/m²
2. 320 GN/m²
3. 125 GN/m²
4. 80 GN/m²

Q. A composite system where the components are of equal lengths is subjected to temperature rise. Which one of the following stresses will be developed in the component having highest coefficient of linear expansion?

1. Compressive stress
2. Tensile stress
3. Shear stress
4. Zero stress

Q. What is the nature of stress in a ceiling fan rod?

1. Bending
2. Tensile
3. Compressive
4. Shear

Q. What is the diameter of Mohr’s circle of stress for the state of stress shown above?

1. 20
2. 10
3. 10 √2
4. Zero

Q. In a plane strain situation in xy plane, the displacements at a point are given as:

U = (-2x + 8y)x10^-6unit.

V = (-3x + 5y)x10^-6unit

What is the shearing strain?

1. 9x10^-6
2. 7x10^-6
3. 5x10^-6
4. 3x10^-6

Q. If a body carries two unlike principal stresses, what is the maximum shear stress?

1. Half the difference of magnitude of the principal stresses.
2. Half the sum of the magnitude of principal stresses.
3. Difference of the magnitude of principal stresses.
4. Sum of the magnitude of principal stresses

Q. A symmetrical I section is subjected to shear force. The shear stress induced across the section is maximum at which location?

1. Extreme fibers
2. At the bottom of flanges in flanges
3. At the bottom of flanges in flange portion
4. At the neutral axis

Q. A simply supported beam AB of span L carries two concentrated loads W each at points L/3 from A and B. What is the S.F. in the middle one-third portion of the beam?

1. W/2
2. 2W
3. W
4. Zero

Q. A beam is made of two identical metal flats soldered together. What is the ratio of stiffness of this beam to the stiffness of a beam in which the two flats are not soldered and which acts independently?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 6
4. 8

What is the force in the vertical member CD of the pin-jointed frame shown above?

1. 12 T (tension)
2. 2 T (compression)
3. 7 T (compression)
4. 5 T (tension)

Q. What is the ratio of load carrying capacity of a fixed beam to that of a cantilever beam of same span, having same maximum bending moment and loaded with uniformly distributed load throughout the span?

1. 6
2. 4
3. 3
4. 2

Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Chart)

A.Bar chart

B.Milestchart

C.B.S

D.Linked Bar chart

List II (Facilitation)

1. Activity dependencies can be implied
2. Resource requirement can be depicted
3. Higher level of authority can effect monitoring and control
4. Trade based site supervision can be assigned

Code:

        A B C D

1. 4 3 2 1
2. 2 1 4 3
3. 4 1 2 3
4. 2 3 4 1

Q. Fill factor range of a power shovel when used for well blasted rock is

1. 0.9 – 1.0
2. 0.8 – 0.9
3. 0.6 – 0.75
4. 0.4 – 0.5

Q. Which of the following are the advantages of a crawler mounted power shovel over a rubber-tyred equipment?

1. i) It can operate on soft and hard soil.

   ii) It is less expensive than rubber-tyred equipment.

   iii) It works faster than rubber-tyred equipment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. i. ii and iii
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i and iii only

Q. The strain of the boom of a hoist is minimum when it is in the

1. Vertical position
2. Horizontal position
3. Inclined position general
4. 45° inclined position

Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List –I (Equipment)

A.Clamshell

B.Designation S

C.Designation E

D.Centralized production

List –II (Used as with)

1. Paving mixer
2. Aggregate storage bins at batching and mixing plant
3. Transit mixer
4. Construction mixer

Code:

        A B C D

1. 2 3 1 4
2. 2 4 1 3
3. 1 3 2 4
4. 1 4 2 3

Q. For high class brick masonry, which are the proper bricks?

1. Refractory bricks
2. Jhumb bricks
3. Bull nose bricks
4. Modular bricks

Q.Which one of the following is correct?

Fully prestressed concrete beams

1. Resist all the working loads by prestress
2. Resist the full live load by prestress
3. Resist the part of the load by prestress
4. Resist only the dead loads

Q.What is the assumption in the steel beam theory of doubly reinforced beams?

1. Only steel bars will resist tension

2. Only concrete will resist tension

3. Stress in tension steel equals the stress in compression steel

4. Both concrete and steel will resist compression

Q. Consider the following statements regarding CPM technique of project planning:

1. i) The critical path consists of those activities for which the total float is zero.

   ii) Independent float is expressed as the difference between total float and the slack at the head event.

   iii) It is not possible to complete an activity earlier than the crash time.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. i, ii and iii
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i and iii only

Q. A compounded bar consists of material A encased in material B. It is tightly secured at the ends. The coefficient of thermal expansion of A is more than of B. If the temperature of the bar is increased, the stresses induced will be

1. Tensile in both materials
2. Compressive in both materials
3. Tensile in material B and compressive in material A
4. Compressive in material B and tensile in material A

Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Equipment)

A.Derrick crane

B.Hoe

C.Clam shell

D.Dumper truck

List-II (Category)

1. Excavating equipment
2. Hauling equipment
3. Hoisting equipment
4. Lifting equipment

Code:

        A B C D

1. 3 1 4 2
2. 4 2 3 1
3. 3 2 4 1
4. 4 1 3 2

Q. Which one of the following techniques is most suitable in case of research and development type of activity?

1. Critical Path Method
2. Project Evaluation and Review technique
3. Bar chart
4. Graphical Evaluation and Review technique

Q. A tunnel of length of 800m is to be driven. Part of the total length is through granite and balance is through sandstone. Granite can be tunneled at 10m per day and sandstone at 20m per day. Two mutually exclusive site conditions can be. (1) A probability of 0.4 for 600m granite with 200m sandstone; (2) Probability of 0.6 that each is 400m lone. The probabilistic estimate of total tunneling duration is

1. 74 days
2. 68 days
3. 64 days
4. 60 days

Q. Assertion (A): addition of calcium chloride while preparing concrete proves more effective with slow hardening Portland cement than with rapid hardening cement.

Reason (R): Calcium chloride is an effective accelerator in increasing the rate of relevant reaction.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A): The volume of mortar needed for plastering on both faces of a one-brick wall is more than that for the same are on both faces together of any other thickness of brick wall.

Reason (R): More water evaporates from the wetted bricks in case of a one-brick wall and also the joints have to be more commonly raked.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a cast iron specimen, the failure of the specimen is on a cross section perpendicular to the axis of the specimen.

Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is on a plane subjected to maximum tensile stress and cast iron is relatively weak in tension.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A): In a tension test on a mild steel specimen, the failure of the specimen is along a plane at 45° to the cross section.

Reason (R): The failure of the specimen is on a plane subjected to maximum shear stress and mild steel is relatively weak in shear.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A): Linked bar chart cannot be developed from an AON network as easily as from an AOA network.

Reason (R): AON networks do not incorporate information corresponding to dummy arrows of AOA networks.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. Assertion (A): Where as crashing considers only the negative cost slop aspects, resource allocation may need consideration of the positive cost slope aspects also.

Reason (R): Implement ability is based on manageability and affordability of resource histograms.

1. Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
2. Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A
3. A is true but R is false
4. A is false but R is true

Q. For the propped cantilever shown in the above figure, a hinge is provided at C.A and B is at the same level. What is the force reaction at the fixed end A?

1. (4/3) P
2. P
3. (3/4) P
4. P/2

Q. Which one of the following is correct?

A suspension bridge with a two-hinged stiffening girder is

1. Statically determinate
2. Indeterminate of one degree
3. Indeterminate of two degrees
4. A mechanism

Q.The fixed beam AB has hinge C at mid span. A concentrated load P is applied at C. What is the fixed end moment M_A?

1. Pl
2. Pl/2
3. Pl/4
4. Pl/8

Q.What is the statical indeterminacy for the frame shown above?

1. 12
2. 15
3. 11
4. 14

Q.Which one of the following is correct?

A statically indeterminate structure is the one which

1. Cannot be analysed at all
2. Can be analysed using equations of static’s only
3. Can be analysed using equations of static’s and compatibility equations
4. Can be analysed using equations of compatibility only

Q. By which one of the following methods is an approximate quick solution possible for frame subjected to transverse loads?

1. By cantilever or portal method
2. By strain energy method
3. By moment distribution method
4. By matrix method

Q.Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

A.Maxwell’s diagram

B.Henneberg’s method

C.New mark’s method

D.Williot-mohr diagram

List-II

1. Displacement of joints in a truss
2. Deflection by numerical procedure
3. Forces in bar members
4. Concept of substitute member

Code:

        A B C D

1. 1 2 4 3
2. 3 4 2 1
3. 3 2 4 1
4. 1 4 2 3

Q. Some structural members subjected to long time sustained loads deform progressively with time especially at elevated temperatures. What is such a phenomenon called?

1. Fatigue
2. Creep
3. Creep relaxation
4. Fracture

Q.What is the reaction at the support D of the rigid –jointed structure shown above?

1. 10 kN
2. 20 kN
3. 30 kN
4. 40 kN

Q. Which one of the following is correct?

A determinate structure

1. Cannot be analyzed without the correct knowledge of modulus of elasticity
2. Must necessarily have roller support at one of its ends
3. Requires only statical equilibrium equations for its analysis
4. Will have zero deflection at its ends

Q. Which one of the following is correct?

When a load is applied to a structure with rigid joints

1. There is no rotation or displacement of joint
2. There is no rotation of joint
3. There is no displacement of joint
4. There can be rotation and displacement of joint but the angle between the members connected to the joint remains same ever after application of the load

Q.In the frame shown above, what is true horizontal reaction at left support?

1. 15 kN
2. 13 kN
3. 7 kN
4. 2 kN

Q.What is the force in the member BC of the place frame shown above?

1. 10 kN tensile
2. 10 kN compressive
3. 5.76 kN compressive
4. Zero

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. i) The bending stiffness of a beam cannot be determined and the dimensions of cross-section of the beam.

   ii) The boundary conditions of a structure are important in sketching its deflected shape qualifiedly as well as for computing the displacement quantitatively.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. i only
2. ii only
3. Both i and ii
4. Neither i nor ii

Q. Match list-I with list-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Wood Element)

A.Pitch

B.Sapwood

C.Heart wood

D.Cambium layer

List-II (Description)

1. Innermost portion of the tree
2. Inner annual rings surrounding the pitch
3. Outermost annual rings
4. Thin layer of sap between sapwood and inner bark

Code:

        A B C D

1. 1 3 2 4
2. 2 4 1 3
3. 1 4 2 3
4. 2 3 1 4

Q. In respect of moisture content in wood fiber saturation point refers to which one of the following?

1. Free water present in the cells
2. Free water present in cell walls and cell cavities
3. No moisture present in cell walls and cell cavities
4. No free water exists in cell cavities but cell walls are saturated

Q.The moisture content of timber used in building frames can be

1. 1. 2% to 5%
   2. 8% to 12%
   3. 12% to 18%
   4. > 20%

Q.Match list-I with List-II and select thecorrect answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Disease of Timber)

A.Dry rot

B.Grey rot

C.Wet rot

D.White rot

List-II (Effect of Disease)

1. Attack of sapwood by fungus
2. Damage to wood fibers due to chemical decomposition of wood
3. Destruction of cellulose of wood due to fungal attack

Destruction of lignin of wood due fungal attack

Code:

        A B C D

1. 1 3 2 4
2. 1 4 2 3
3. 2 3 1 4
4. 2 4 1 3

Q. For flatly laid single brick soling, what is the number of bricks required of nominal size 20 cm × 10 cm, with 1.2 cm wide cement mortar all around and with allowing up to 1% wastage for 10 m² area?

1. 400
2. 410
3. 425
4. 440

Q. Consider the following statements:

1. i) Soil containing more than 30% of calcium hydroxide is used for manufacture of sand lime brick.

   ii) Carbon brick is made from crushed coke bonded with tar.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. i only
2. ii only
3. Both i and ii
4. Neither i nor ii

Q. What is the number of traditional bricks required for 10m³ of brickwork with standard thickness of cement mortar (1:3 to 1:5, as the case may be)?

1. 4750
2. 4850
3. 4950
4. 5050

Q. Consider the following statements on cement mortar in brick masonry:

1. i) Cracking in brick masonry in most of the cases is due to differential movement of the structure

   ii) Rich mix cement mortar in brick masonry makes the structure unnecessarily rigid.

   iii) Small quantity of hydrated lime in cement mortar reduces shrinkage cracks.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. i, ii and iii
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i and iii only

Q.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Composition of raw material used in manufacture of cement)

A.25%

B.65%

C.5%

D.5%

List-II (Component of raw material)

1. Silica
2. Calcium oxide
3. Aluminum oxide
4. Ferrous and magnesium oxides

Code:A B C D

1. 1 2 3 4
2. 4 3 2 1
3. 1 3 2 4
4. 4 2 3 1

Q.Match List-I with List-II in respect of ordinary Portland cement and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Compound)

A.Tricalcium silicate

B.Dicalcium silicate

C.Tricalcium aluminate

D.Tertra calcium aluminoferrite

List-II (Proportion)

1. 25 to 30%
2. 50 to 60%
3. 6 to 8%
4. 8 to 12%

Code:

        A B C D

1. 2 3 4 1
2. 4 1 2 3
3. 2 1 4 3
4. 4 3 2 1

Q.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I (Equipment)

A.Briquette testing machine

B.Le chatelier

C.Vicat apparatus

List-II (Property)

1. Compressive strength
2. Consistency
3. Soundness
4. Tensile strength

Code:

        A B C

1. 1 3 2
2. 1 2 3
3. 4 2 3
4. 4 3 2

Q.When sand for construction work is stored at site in stacks of 61 cm height, what allowance due to sink age and shrinkage should be provided?

1. 5%
2. 7½%
3. 10%
4. 12 ½%

Q.How can shear strength be ensured in a beam?

1. 1. By providing binding wire on main bars
   2. By providing HYSD bars instead of mild steel bars
   3. By providing rounded aggregate
   4. By providing stirrups

Q. How is the depth of footing for an isolated column governed?

1. i) By maximum bending moment

   ii) By shear force

   iii) By punching shear

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. ii and iii only
2. i and ii only
3. i and iii only
4. i, ii and iii

Q. Usually stiffness of a simply supported beam is satisfied if the ratio of its span to depth does not exceed which one of the following?

1. 7
2. 10
3. 20
4. 26

Q. When is an R.C.C roof slab designed as a two way slab?

1.If the slab is continuous over two opposite edges only

2.It the slab is un-supported at one edge only

3.If the ratio of spans in two directions is >2

4.If the ratio of spans in two directions is < 2

Q.Which one of the following is correct?

When HYSD bars are used in place of mild steel bars in beam, the bond strength

1. Does not change
2. Increases
3. Decreases
4. Becomes zero 

Q. In a singly reinforced beam, the tensile steel reaches its maximum allowable stress earlier than concrete. What is such a section known as?

1. Under-reinforced section
2. Over-reinforced section
3. Balanced section
4. Economic section

Q. Why is the design of a R.C. section as over-reinforced undesirable?

1. 1. It consumes more concrete
   2. It undergoes high strains
   3. It fails suddenly
   4. Its appearance is not good

Q. What is the moment capacity of an under-reinforced rectangular RCC beam?

Q. What is the bond stress acting parallel to the reinforcement on the interface between bar and concrete?

1. Shear stress
2. Local stress
3. Flexural stress
4. Bearing stress

Q. In a singly reinforced concrete beam section maximum compressive stress in concrete and tensile stress in steel reach their permissible stresses simultaneously. What is such a section called?

1. Under reinforced section
2. Economic section
3. Balanced section
4. Over-reinforced section

Q. Which one of the following is correct? while designing combined footing, the resultant of the column loads passes through the centre of gravity of the footing slab such that the net soil pressure obtained is

1. Parabolic
2. Trapezoidal
3. Uniform
4. Non-uniform

Q. For shorter storey height, cheaper form work and better lighting facilities, what is the recommended slab floor?

1. T beam and slab
2. Two way slab
3. Flat slab
4. Framed structure

Q. What is the ratio of the elastic modulus of structural timber in longitudinal direction to that in the transverse direction ?

1. 1/2 to 1
2. 1/10 to 1/20
3. 1 to 2
4. 10 to 20

Q. What is the modulus of elasticity of standard timber (Group B) in (MN/cm²) ?

1. 0.5 to 1.0
2. 1.0 to 1.25
3. 1.25 to 1.5
4. 1.5 to 1.75

Q. What is the treatment for making timber fire resistant ?

1. ASCU treatment
2. Abel's process
3. Creosoting
4. Tarring

Q. How is the process of treatment of wood using a preservative solution and forcing air in at a pressure designated ?

1. Ruping process
2. Lawri process
3. Full cell process
4. Empty cell process

Q. Modular bricks are of nominal size 20×10×10 cm and 20% of the volume is lost in mortar between joints. Then what is the number of modular bricks required per cubic meter of brickwork ?

1. 520
2. 500
3. 845
4. 470

Q. In order to achieve a safe compressive strength of 20 kg/cm² in a brick masonry, what should be the suitable range of crushing strength of bricks?

1. 35 kg/cm² to 70 kg/cm²
2. 70 kg/cm² to 105 kg/cm²
3. 105 kg/cm² to 125 kg/cm²
4. More than 125 kg/cm²

Q. What is the requirement of water (expressed as % of cement w/w) for the completion of chemical reactions in the process of hydration of OPC ?

1. 10 to 15%
2. 15 to 20%
3. 20 to 25%
4. 25 to 30%

Q. Which factors comprise maturity of concrete?

1. Compressive strength and flexural strength of concrete
2. Cement content per cubic metre and compressive strength of concrete
3. Curing age and curing temperature of concrete
4. Age and aggregate content per cubic metre of concrete

Q.What is the minimum value of individual test results (in N/ mm²) for compressive strength compliance requirement for concrete M20 as per codal provision?

Q. For what reason is it taken that the nominal maximum size of aggregate may be as large as possible?

1. Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the cement required and so higher the strength.
2. Larger the maximum size of aggregate, smaller is the cement requirement for a particular water cement ratio and so more economical the mix.
3. Larger the maximum size of aggregate, lesser are the voids in the mix and hence also lesser the cement required.
4. Larger the maximum size of aggregate, more the surface area and better the bond between aggregates and cement, and so higher the strength.

Q.What is the representative geometric mean size of an aggregate sample if its fineness modulus is 3.0?

1. 150 μm
2. 300 μm
3. 600 μm
4. 12 μm

Q.A square steel bar of 50 mm side and 5 m long is subjected to a load whereupon absorbs a strain energy of 100 J. What is its modulus of resilience?

Q. What is the ratio of flexural strength (f_cr) to the characteristic compressive strength of concrete (f_ck) for M25 grade concrete ?

1. 0.08
2. 0.11
3. 0.14
4. 0.17

Q. Which of the following tests compares the dynamic modulus of elasticity of samples of concrete?

1. Compression test
2. Ultrasonic pulse velocity test
3. Split test
4. Tension test

Q. Which one of the following is correct regarding the most effective requirements of durability in concrete?

1. Providing reinforcement near the exposed concrete surface.
2. Applying a protective coating to the exposed concrete surface.
3. Restricting the minimum cement content and the maximum water cement ratio and the type of cement.
4. Compacting the concrete to a greater degree.

Q. A circular rod of diameter 30 mm and length 200 mm is subjected to a tensile force. The extension in rod is 0.09 mm and change in diameter is 0.0045 mm. What is the Poisson's ratio of the material of the rod ?

1. 0.30
2. 0.32
3. 0.33
4. 0.35

Q. For a material having modulus of elasticity equal to 208 GPa and Poisson's ratio equal to 0.3, what is the modulus of rigidity ?

1. 74.0 GPa
2. 80.0 GPa
3. 100.0GPa
4. 128.5 GPa

Q. What would be the shape of the failure surface of a standard cast iron specimen subjected to torque?

1. Cup and cone shape at the centre.
2. Plane surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen.
3. Pyramid type wedge-shaped surface perpendicular to the axis of the specimen.
4. Helicoidal surface at 45° to the axis of the specimen.

Q. Given E as the Young's modulus of elasticity of a material, what can be the minimum value of its bulk modulus of elasticity?

1. E/2
2. E/3
3. E/4
4. E/5

Q. What is the radius of Mohr's circle in case of bi-axial state of stress?

1. Half the sum of the two principal stresses.
2. Half the difference of the two principal stresses.
3. Difference of the two principal stresses.
4. Sum of the two principal stresses.

Q.A circular column of external diameter D, and internal diameter d, carries an eccentric load such that tension is developed nowhere. What shall be the diameter of the core?

Q. A mild steel bar of square cross section 25 mm x 25 mm is 1 m long. It is subjected to bi-axial stress σx =480 N/mm^{2(Tension) and σy =400 N/mm2. E= 2x105 N/mm2, μ = 0.3, what is the elongation of the bar in mm in x direction?}

1. 1.0
2. 1.5
3. 2.0
4. 3.0

Q. The details of the principal stresses at a certain point in a steel member are as follows:

Major principal stress σ₁ =180 N/mm² (Tensile)

Major principal stress σ₂ is (Compressive)

If the uniaxial tensile yield stress is 240 N/mm², according to maximum shear stress theory, what would be the value of σ₂ in N/mm² which yielding will commence?

1. 120 tension
2. 90 tension
3. 80 compression
4. 60 compression

Q. An element of a structure is subjected to two

Principal stresses σ₁ and σ₂

σ₁=200 N/mm² (Tensile),

σ₂ is Compressive.

The yield stress both in simple tension and compression for the material is 240 N/ mm². Poisson's ratio =0.25; what is the value of σ₂ in N/mm² as per maximum normal strain theory at which the yield of the material will commence ?

1. 240
2. 200
3. 180
4. 160

Q. A structural beam subjected to sagging bending has a cross-section which is an unsymmetrical I-section. The overall depth of the beam is 300 mm. The flange stresses in the beam are:

σ_top=200 N/mm²

σ_bottom=50 N/mm²

What is the height in mm the neutral axis above the bottom flange ?

1. 240 mm
2. 60 mm
3. 180 mm
4. 120 mm

Q.A simply supported beam AB is loaded as shown in the figure above. What is the SF in KN in the portion AC of the beam?

1. 2
2. 4
3. 0
4. 6

Q. A timber beam is 100 mm wide and 150 mm deep. The beam is simply supported and carries a central concentrated load W. If the maximum stress in shear is 2 N/mm², what would be the corresponding load W on the beam?

1. 20 kN
2. 30 kN
3. 40 kN
4. 25 kN

Q. A 40 mm diameter shaft is subjected to a twisting moment M. If shear stress developed in shaft is 5 N/mm², what is the value of the twisting moment ?

1. 628.8 Nm
2. 328.4 Nm
3. 62.8 Nm
4. 30.4 Nm

Q. The above figure shows a pin-jointed frame. What are the forces in members BE, CD and ED?

1. 10 kN, 5 kN and 5 kN
2. 10 kN, 5 kN and Zero
3. 5 kN,10 kN and Zero
4. 5 kN,5 kN and Zero

Q. A square beam laid flat is then rotated in such a way that one of its diagonal becomes horizontal. How is its moment capacity affected ?

1. Increases by 41.4%
2. Increases by 29.27%
3. Decreases by 29.27%
4. Decreases by 41.4%

Q. Consider the following statements with respect to the above figure of a typical articulated frame:

i) The frame is internally determinate and externally indeterminate

ii) The frame is internally indeterminate and externally determinate.

iii) The frame is internally as well as externally determinate.

iv) The frame is internally as well as externally indeterminate.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. i only
2. i and ii
3. iii only
4. iii and iv

Q.What is the force in member 1 for the structure shown in figure above?

1. 30 kN
2. 60 kN
3. 75 KN
4. 80 kN

Q.What is the value of vertical reaction at A for the frame shown in figure above?

1. 0
2. 10 kN
3. 16 kN
4. 20 kN

Q. A fixed end beam of uniform cross-section is loaded uniformly throughout the span. What is the proportion of the bending moment at the centre to the end moment considering only elastic conditions ?

1. 1:1
2. 1:2
3. 1:4
4. 2:3

Q.A beam of uniform flexural rigidity supports a set of loads as shown in figure above. What is the value of W if the magnitudes of bending moment at midspan and at support of the beam are numerically equal ?

1. 20 kN
2. 40 kN
3. 60 kN
4. 80 kN

Q. What is the rotation of the member at C for a frame as shown in figure above?

1. ML/3EI
2. ML/4EI
3. ML/6EI
4. ML/12EI

Q.A beam of uniform section fixed at both ends and of span 6 m is acted upon by two concentrated loads of 6 t each as shown in figure above. What is the fixed end moment at each end?

1. 6 tm
2. 8 tm
3. 10 tm
4. 12 tm

Q.What is the ordinate of influence line at B for reaction

R_D in above figure?

1. 5
2. 4
3. 2
4. Zero

Q. What is the area of influence line diagram for the reaction at the hinged end of a uniform propped cantilever beam of span L?

1. L/8
2. L/2
3. L/4
4. 3L/8

Q. What is the maximum ordinate for influence line for the force in the member marked X?

1. 1.0
2. 1.33
3. 1.50
4. 2.50

Q.What is the distance between elastic neutral axis and plastic neutral axis for the cross-section as shown in figure above?

1. 60 mm
2. 50 mm
3. 40 mm
4. 20 mm

Q. Steel of yield strength 400 MPa has been used in a structure. What is the value of the ·maximum allowable tensile strength?

1. 240MPa
2. 200MPa
3. 120MPa
4. 96 MPa

Q.A steel plate is 300 mm wide and 10 mm thick. A rivet of nominal diameter of 16 mm is driven into it. What is the net sectional area of the plate?

1. 2600 mm²
2. 2760 mm²
3. 2830 mm²
4. 2840 mm²

Q. What is the safe load P that can be transmitted by the fillet-welded joint shown in figure above if the safe allowable shear stress in the fillet-weld is 108 MPa?

1. 60 kN
2. 66 kN
3. 77 kN
4. 81 kN

Q. A tension member consists of two angles placed back to back. For which one of the following configurations, will the load carrying capacity of the tension member be maximum?

1. Gusset plate is in between the two angles and tacking rivets are provided
2. Gusset plate is in between the two angles and no tacking rivets are provided
3. Gusset plate is on one side of the two angles and tacking rivets are provided
4. Gusset plate is on one side of the two angles and no tacking rivets are provided

Q.For a welded plate girder with vertical stiffeners, what is the maximum depth of web provisionable in design when the thickness of the web plate is 5 mm?

1. 425 mm
2. 1000mm
3. 1250mm
4. 2000mm

Q. An ISMB 300 beam has modulus of section of 600*10³mm³

Plates of 200 mm*100 mm are added by welding them one on each flange to have total depth of section as 320 mm. What is the section modulus of the plated section?

1. 462*10³mm³

2. 550*10³mm³

3. 710*10³mm³

4. 1220*10³mm³

Q. A column bearing truss in an open industrial shed is 6 m height between its own base and the bottom of the truss. What is the effective height of the column taken for calculation of compressive strength ?

1. 4.8
2. 6.0
3. 7.2
4. 9.0 

Q. Which one of the following values represents the maximum slenderness ratio of any connection member which normally acts as a tie in a roof truss but can be subjected to possible reversal of stresses from the action of wind or seismic force ?

1. 150
2. 200
3. 250
4. 350

Q. Consider the following statements :

i) When wind load is the primary load, no increase in the allowable stresses is provided for in members or fasteners.

ii) Due to wind load acting along with dead and live loads, increase in allowable stress upto 33·33% can be provided for.

iii) Due to wind load acting along with dead load, increase in allowable stress of 25% in foundation bolts can be provided for.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. i, ii and iii
2. i only
3. ii and iii
4. iii only

Q.What is the slenderness ratio to be considered in design for member BC in the structure shown above ?

1. 75
2. 150
3. 100
4. 200

Q. A simply supported beam of uniform cross-section has span 'L' and is loaded by a point load 'P' at its mid-span. What is the length of the elastoplastic zone of the plastic hinge?

1. L/3
2. 2L/3
3. L/2
4. 3L/4

Q. In a T-section shown in figure above, what is the distance of plastic neutral axis as measured down from top ?

1. 100 mm
2. 150 mm
3. 200 mm
4. 300 mm

Q. Consider the following statements:

Torsional restraint in a beam can be achieved by providing

i) Web or flange cleats at the end connections.

ii) External support to the end of the compression flange.

iii) Bearing stiffness acting in conjunction with the bearing of the beam.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. i only
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i, ii and iii

Q. At the point of collapse, what is the value of horizontal thrust at point A in the loaded frame shown in figure?

1. 3P
2. 2P
3. 5P
4. P

Q. How is the deflection in RC beams controlled as per IS-456 ?

1. By using large aspect ratio
2. By using small modular ratio
3. By controlling span/depth ratio
4. By moderating water-cement ratio

Q. At what stress does the first flexural crack appear in RCC beams made of M25 grade concrete?

1. 3.0 MPa
2. 3.5 MPa
3. 4.0 MPa
4. 4.5 MPa

Q. What is the adoptable maximum spacing between vertical stirrups in an RCC beam of rectangular cross-section having an effective depth of 300 mm ?

1. 300 mm
2. 275 mm
3. 250 mm
4. 225 mm

Q. A simply supported RC beam having clear span 5 m and support width 300 mm has the cross-section as shown in figure. What is the effective span of the beam as per IS456?

1. 5300 mm
2. 5400 mm
3. 5200 mm
4. 5120 mm

Q. Consider the following statements dealing with flexural reinforcement to be terminated in the tension zone

i) The shear at the cut-off point not to exceed two-third of the otherwise permitted value.

ii) Shear reinforcement is provided along each terminated bar overlapping three­fourth of the appropriate distance from the cut-off point.

iii) For 36 mm and smaller bars, the continuing bars shall provide double the area required for flexure at the cut­off and shear does not exceed three­fourth of the permitted value.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. i, ii and iii
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. iii only

Q.Match List-1 with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

A. IS-875

B.IS- 1343

C. IS-1893

D. IS-3370

List-II

1. Earthquake resistant design
2. Loads
3. Liquid storage structure
4. Prestressed concrete

1. What is the modular ratio to be used in the analysis of RC beams using working stress method if the grade of concrete is M20?

1. 18.6
2. 13.3
3. 9.9
4. 6.5

Q. Considering modular ratio as 13, grade of concrete as M20 and grade of steel as 415, what is the ratio of balanced depth of neutral axis as per working stress method to the balanced depth of neutral axis as per limit state method?

1. 12/7
2. 11/3
3. 7/12
4. 3/11

Q. What is the anchorage value of a standard hook of a reinforcement bar of diameter D?

1. 4D
2. 8D
3. 12D
4. 16D

Q.How is the base-level bending moment of a cantilever retaining wall expressed as a function of its height H?

1. H¹
2. H²
3. H³
4. H⁴

Q.Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

A.At end support, for imposed load (not fixed)

B.At inside support, next inner to end support, for imposed load (fixed)

C.At end support, for dead load and (fixed) imposed load

D.At all other interior supports (other than at 'B'), for imposed load (fixed)

List-II

1. 0.5
2. 0.55
3. 0.60
4. 0.45
5. 0.4

Q. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:

List-I

A.Moment and shear coefficients

B.Fire resistance

C.Sliding

D.Span to depth ratio of beam

List-II

1. Durability
2. Stability
3. Analysis of structure
4. Deflection limits

Q. The shear resistance of structural concrete members may be improved by

i) Axial prestressing.

ii) Vertical prestressing.

iii) Inclined prestressing.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. i only
2. i and ii only
3. ii and iii only
4. i, ii and iii